1. Which of the following statements is not accurate?
A. At constant temperature, doubling the number of gas particles in a given space will double the pressure.
B. At constant temperature, increasing the number of gas particles in a given space will decrease the number of collisions on the walls of the container.
C. At constant temperature, halving the number of gas particles in a given space will cut the pressure in half.
D. At constant volume and mass, increasing the temperature will cause gas particles to move faster and create more collisions.
2. A 8.5 L sample is collected at 45°C. What will the volume be if the temperature is raised to 70°C?
A. 13.2 L
B. 5.5 L
C. 7.9 L
D. 9.2 L
3. Imagine you have two containers of gas, one labeled gas A and one labeled gas B. Gas A has an average
speed of 700 m/s and gas B has an average speed of 1100 m/s. Both containers are being held at the same
temperature. How could you match the average speeds of gas A and gas B?
A. Lower the temperature of gas B.
B. Lower the temperature of gas A.
C. Raise the temperature of gas B.
D. Reduce the volumes of both containers.
4. At the same temperature, steam burns are often more severe than water burns because of water’s high
D. heat of vaporization.
5. What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 14 g calcium, 11 g oxygen, and 0.7 g hydrogen?
6. Which of the following is true of liquids and solids?
A. Liquids have a definite shape and volume whereas solids have a definite shape but not a definite volume.
B. Liquids have fixed particles and do not expand when heated whereas solids have flowing particles that do expand when
C. Solids have a definite shape and volume whereas liquids have a definite volume but not a definite shape.
D. Solids and liquids have a definite shape of tightly packed particles.
7. The temperature of a substance _______ as its heat of fusion is added to melt the substance.
B. fluctuates from rapid increases and decreases
D. remains constant
8. What is the volume of 55 L of gas initially at 500 K and 4.25 atm when conditions change to STP?
A. 10.5 L
B. 584.0 L
C. 127.6 L
D. 428.1 L
10. If the temperature of an object is 335 K, how would this be expressed on the Celsius scale?
12. A reading shows a pressure measurement of 43 in. Hg. What is the equivalent pressure in psi?
A. 5.73 psi
B. 26.32 psi
C. 21.13 psi
D. 2223.13 psi
13. What is the number of moles in 42 g of NaCl?
A. 0.72 mol NaCl
B. 1.2 mol NaCl
C. 1.8 mol NaCl
D. 0.61 mol NaCl
14. A container of gas has a volume of 3.5 L and a pressure of 0.8 atm. Assuming the temperature remains
constant, what volume of gas would result if the pressure was 0.5 atm?
A. 0.2 L
B. 5.6 L
C. 1.8 L
D. 2.2 L
15. Theoretically, a student performing a lab experiment was expected to get 9 g of product. Instead, the
student obtained only 7.8 g. What is the percent yield of the reaction performed by the student?
A. 1.15 percent
B. 67 percent
C. 0.86 percent
D. 87 percent
16. What mass of sulfur has to burn to produce 4.5L SO2 at 300°C and 101 kPa in the following reaction?
A. 41.0 g S
B. 68.8 g S
C. 13.5 g S
D. 3.07 g S
17. What is the mass of the 3.7 mol PbO2?
A. 884 g PbO2
B. 65 g PbO2
C. 0.15 g PbO2
D. 825 g PbO2
20. The mass of a quantity of NiCl2 is 24.6 g. How many formula units are in the sample?
A. 5.3 3 10–21 NiCl2 formula units
B. 1.9 3 1027 NiCl2 formula units
C. 3.2 3 1023 NiCl2 formula units
D. 1.1 3 1023 NiCl2 formula units
1. A solution with a hydronium ion concentration of 10–11M has a pH of
2. Which of the following is not a base?
3. Oxidation-reduction reactions
A. must include a transfer of electrons from one atom or ion to another.
B. must include oxygen.
C. do not need to have both an oxidation and a reduction reaction.
D. can include an atom or ion being reduced without an atom or ion being oxidized.
4. Regarding the vaporization of water, which of the following is true?
A. A great deal of heat must be absorbed by water to break hydrogen bonds and allow molecules to move farther apart.
B. Vaporization of water is an exothermic process.
C. A great deal of heat must be lost by water to form hydrogen bonds and allow molecules to move farther apart.
D. Water must lose a great deal of heat before it will vaporize.
5. How would you prepare 3.5 L of a 0.9M solution of KCl?
A. Add 567 g of KCl to a 3.5 L container; then add enough water to dissolve the KCl and fill the container to the 3.5 L mark.
B. Add 287 g of KCl to a 3.5 L container; then add enough water to dissolve the KCl and fill the container to the 3.5 L mark.
C. Add 233 g of KCl to a 3.5 L container; then add enough water to dissolve the KCl and fill the container to the 3.5 L mark.
D. Add 23 g of KCl to a 3.5 L container; then add enough water to dissolve the KCl and fill the container to the 3.5 L mark.
6. Which of the following would be the best indicator dye to use to detect a pH = 10?
A. Bromcresol green
B. Methyl orange
D. Bromthymol blue
7. NH3–NH4Cl is a/an _______ that helps regulate the pH of a system.
A. neutral solution
8. Metals like aluminum can react with _______ to form coatings that _______ corrosion.
A. iron; cause
B. iron; prevent
C. oxygen; cause
D. oxygen; prevent
9. Which of the following is true regarding acids and bases?
A. Both acids and bases cause indicator dyes to change colors.
B. Acids contribute hydroxide ions in solutions; bases produce hydronium ions in solutions.
C. Acids and bases will react only outside living systems.
D. Acids are slippery to the touch; bases are able to burn your hands.
10. Which of the following is not an application that uses chemiluminescent reactions?
A. Criminal investigations using luminol to detect blood
B. Light sticks
C. Tarnish polish
11. Which of the following statements about the pH scale is true?
A. Acids, which have higher concentrations of hydronium ions than bases, are found from 0 and up to 7.
B. Acids, which have lower concentrations of hydronium ions than bases, are found from 14 and down to 7.
C. Bases, which have higher concentrations of hydronium ions than acids, are found from 0 and up to 7.
D. Bases, which have higher concentrations of hydronium ions than acids, are found from 14 and down to 7.
12. Within a voltaic cell, _______ takes place at the anode, electrons flow to the cathode, where _____
A. reduction; oxidation
B. oxidation; current
C. reduction; current
D. oxidation; reduction
13. When salt is added to water, all of the following happen except
A. the water molecules surround the dissociated ions.
B. the salt breaks into positive chlorine ions and negative sodium ions.
C. the negative part of the water molecule is attracted to the positive ions.
D. the positive part of the water molecule is attracted to the negative ions.
14. Electrolysis can be used for all of the following, except
A. separating metals from ores.
B. recharging batteries.
C. plating objects with metal coatings.
D. producing compounds.
15. The reducing agent in a material is the one that
A. gains electrons.
B. is oxidized.
C. increases its atomic number.
D. is reduced.
16. _______ is often utilized in reactions involving bleach.
17. Which of the following is not a drawback of using lithium batteries?
A. Lithium batteries require the use of toxic materials.
B. Lithium’s reactivity can cause explosions.
C. Lithium batteries can require expensive materials.
D. Lithium is more easily oxidized than any other metal.
19. A weak acid placed in water contains
A. a higher concentration of unionized acid molecules than a strong acid in water.
B. a lower concentration of unionized acid molecules than a strong acid in water.
C. no unionized acid molecules.
D. the same number of unionized acid molecules as a strong acid in water.
20. What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxide ion concentration of 10–6M?
A. pH = 6
B. pH = 12
C. pH = 7
D. pH = 8
1. Linking monomers using new bonds to form a long chain is an example of a/an _______ reaction.
2. Which of the following is not an end product of fractional distillation?
B. Heating oil
C. Crude petroleum
3. Which of the following would you expect from an exothermic reaction?
A. Products are favored.
B. Most heat is absorbed.
C. No input of energy is needed to start the reaction.
D. Reactants are favored.
4. The main difference between respiration and fermentation is that respiration
A. uses glycolysis.
B. breaks down sugar.
C. requires oxygen.
D. makes energy.
5. Which of the following statements is true of enzymes?
A. They’re unusable after a reaction.
B. They don’t provide an active site for substrates to bind in a reaction.
C. They act on a specific type of substrate in a reaction.
D. They change shape after a reaction.
6. All the following steps need to be followed when naming alkanes, except
A. locating the longest carbon chain.
B. placing the name in alphabetic order ignoring the added prefixes.
C. using prefixes to designate identical branches.
D. beginning numbering at the end farther from the first branch.
7. Which of the following compounds would you expect to be the most reactive?
8. Positional isomers
A. have the same properties.
B. are never named differently.
C. are compounds that have different numbers and types of atoms but have similar arrangements.
D. are compounds that have the same number and types of atoms but are arranged differently.
9. Which pairing accurately matches a biomolecule polymer with its monomer subunit?
A. Nucleic acid and bases
B. Carbohydrate and sterols
C. Lipid and fatty acids
D. Protein and amino acids
10. With a 1.0–2.0 Sv dosage of radiation, an individual can expect to
C. see no immediate effect.
D. have nausea and hair loss.
11. In an exothermic reaction, the water will _______ in a calorimeter.
A. release heat
B. drop in temperature
C. absorb heat
D. drop in volume
12. About what percent of nuclei remains after four half-lives?
A. 25 percent
B. 13 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 6 percent
13. _______ are organic compounds containing a C=O bond, having strong aromas, and known for being
B. Carboxylic acids
14. Which of the following correctly matches the component of respiration with its job description?
A. FADH2—sugar convert
B. NADH—electron carrier
C. ATP—intermediate carbon molecule
D. Oxygen—initial electron acceptor
15. A plastic substance is reheated but won’t soften enough to be remolded. This substance must be a
A. thermosetting polymer.
B. natural polymer.
C. thermoplastic material.
D. synthetic monomer.
16. A 1.0 g sample of food reacts with oxygen in a calorimeter containing 500 g of water. The temperature
rises 10°C. What is the energy content of the food?
A. 20.92 Calories/g
B. 18.25 Calories/g
C. 5 Calories/g
D. 50 Calories/g
17. All the following are steps included in linking amino acids to form chains except
A. removing the hydroxyl part of the amino group.
B. removing a hydrogen from the amino group.
C. forming water.
D. using a peptide bond to connect the amino acids.
18. _______ are produced in the light reactions and used in the Calvin cycle.
A. Electrons and sugars
B. NADPH and ATP
C. Sugar molecules
D. NADP+ and ADP
19. The structure of 3-propylpentane is best described as
A. a five-carbon ring with a three-carbon branch on the third carbon in the ring.
B. a five-carbon chain with a three-carbon branch on the third carbon in the chain.
C. a three-carbon chain with a five-carbon branch on the fifth carbon in the chain.
D. a three-carbon chain with a three-carbon branch on the third carbon in the chain.
20. All the following can result in the disruption of a protein’s ability to function, except
A. high temperatures.
B. extreme pH conditions.
C. mechanic agitations.
D. maintaining the protein’s shape.